This question paper is to give an idea of the actual exam paper of the
last few years. You can buy question banks, that are easily available
in the market.
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(Paper - I)
Maximum Marks : 300
INSTRUCTIONS
Each Question is printed both in Hindi and in English. Answers must be written in the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued to you, which must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-book in the space provided for the purpose. No mark will be given for answers written in a medium other than that specified in the Admission Certificate. Candidates should attempt ALL questions strictly in accordance with the instructions given under each question. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.
Candidate should attempt All questions strictly in accordance with instructions given under each question.
Q1. Answer any one of the following: (about 250 words) 30 Marksa) “The reforms of 1909 introduced a cardinal problem and ground of controversy at every revision of the Indian electoral system.” Comment.
b) Discuss the problem that impeded the integration of the princely states into the Indian Union. How were these problems tackled?
Q2. Answer any two of the following: (about 150 words) 2 X15=30 Marksa) ‘The mainstay of Mahatma Gandhi’s movements was the rural India.’ Elucidate.
b) Discuss the character of major tribal uprisings in British India in the nineteenth Century.
c) Bring out the ideological basis of the Moderate-Extermist divide in the Indian National Congress.
Q3. Answer the following: (about 20 words ) 15X2=30 Marksi) Arthasastra
ii) Saranath Pillar
iii) The Jatiya Sarkar of Tamluk
iv) Punnapra-Vayalar
v) Sajjad Zahir
vi) Al-Hilal
vii) Har Dayal
viii) Khudai Khidmatgar
ix) Mahayana Cult
x) W.W. Hunter
xi) Indu Lal Yajnik
xii) Achhut Patwardhan
xiii) Sir William Jones
xiv) James Wilson
xv) Ghulam-giri.
a) Describe the major characteristics of the rivers of Peninsular India.
b) Account for the very high concentration of salt extraction industries in the Saurashtra and South Tamilnadu Coast.
c) State the four distinctive stages of Indian Demographic history.
Q5.write short notes on the following (about 20 words) 5X2=10 i) Define Terai Region.ii) Mention the areas of Shola forests in India.
iii) Who are the Todas and where do they live?
iv) Name any four priccipal languages of Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
v) What is MRTS? Where it is in operation?
Q6. Answer any one of the following: (about 250 words) 30
a) Discuss the question of death sentence and Presidential clemency.
b) Explain the discretionary powers of the Governor of a State.
a) Highlight the signifucance of Forty Fourth Amendment to the Constitution
of India
b) Identify the major Fundamental Duties
c) Explain the relevance of Rajya Sabha as a second chamber in the federal set
up of Indian Parliamentary System.
a) What is a point of order? When can it be raised?
b) What is a Privilege Motion?
c) State the difference between Council of Ministers and the Cabinet.
d) How is the Vice President of India elected?
e) What is meant by ‘sine-die’ adjournment?
a) Discuss the steps taken by Government to check child labour and promote
child welfare.
b) Suggest measures for the eradication of wide spread corruption in Public Life
in India.
a) The issue of gender equality in India.
b) b) Natural Heritage and Cultural Heritage.
c) c) Identify the types of disabilities.
a) What are the distinctive features of the Lokpal Bill introduced in the
Parliament this year?
b) What is the Prime Minister’s Five-Point agenda fir India’s development as a
Knowledge Society?
c) What are the precinditions for the growth of Civil Society? Is Indian
democracy conducive to it?
a) Anthrax
b) Radiation and its effects
c) The Statue of Liberty
d) George Walker Bush
e) Genome.
Time Allowed : Three Hours
Maximum Marks : 300
Each Question is printed both in Hindi and in English. Answers must be written in the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued to you, which must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-book in the space provided for the purpose. No mark will be given for answers written in a medium other than that specified in the Admission Certificate. Candidates should attempt ALL questions strictly in accordance with the instructions given under each question. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.
Q1. Answer any two of the following (about 150 words) 15X2=30a) Discuss the major issues in Indo-US relations in recent times.
b) Discuss the impact of the collapse of the Soviet Union on Indo-Russian
relations.
c) Discuss the recent trends in India’s relations with China.
a) Discuss the importance of the Agra Summit on Indo-Pakistan relations.
b) What has been the nature of “Track II diplomacy” between India and Pakistan.
c) Discuss the major irritants to Indo-Bangladesh relations.
d) Discuss the India’s policy towards international terrorism.
e) In what sense in Indo-Nepal cooperation important for both countries’
national security.
a) Under what conditions are NRIs permitted to remit deposits in India in any
currency of their choice.
b) How can NRIs be attracted to invest in India?
c) What is the significance of the Pravasi Bhartiya Divas in modern India.
d) In what ways did Idi Amin make life difficult for the people of Indian origin
in his country?
e) What is “Brain drain”?
a) Write a note on the strategy of planning in India since 1951.
b) What were the major recommendations of the Task Force on direct taxes
appointed under the Chairmanship of Shri Vijay L. Kelkar?
a) Outline the important objectives of the Tenth Five Year Plan.
b) What is a Finance Commission?
c) Point out the measures undertaken towards flexibility in capital account
transactions during the recent past.
a) What is Plan Holiday?
b) Why did India have a surplus in current account balance in 2001-02
after a gap of 24 years?
c) What is Value Added Tax?
d) What is the main objective of the Competition Act, 2002?
e) Name the two agencies that have helped to promote Foreign Direct
Investment in India.
f) What is the main thrust of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget
Management Bill?
g) Highlight the main features of the policy relating to buy-back of
shares.
h) Why was Janashree Bima Yojana introduced.
i) When was the idea of Agriculture Insurance Corporation mooted?
j) What is the policy of the Government with respect to child labour?
k) Explain the objectives of the National Health Policy, 2002.
l) What was the main objective of the ‘Operation Blackboard’ scheme?
m) Explain the essential feature of differential rate of interest
scheme.
n) Which are the three major items of expenditure of the Government of
India on revenue account?
o) What was the essential feature of the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak
Yojana?
a) What is the ‘Veto’ in the UN-system?
b) Discuss the role of the NATO after the end of the Cold War .
c) Discuss the role of the United Nations in the protection and promotion of
Human Rights.
a) What do the following Stand for : i) IBRD ii) UNHCR
b) Who is Hans Blix?
c) Why was Davis Kelly in the news recently?
d) What is the problem in Chechnya?
e) What is the significance of the Robin Island?
a) What is the significance of Enola Gay in world history?
b) Why is Guantanamo Bay in the news now?
c) What is the theory of “clash of civilisations”?
d) What does the theory of “end of history” menn?
e) Why was Robert Mugabe in the news recently?
a) What do you understand by depletion of ozone layer and why is it considered harmful? Name ozone depleting substances and process. What international ramifications took place to protect the ozone layer and what was the target agreed upon?
b) What is interactive television? What special advantages and derived by using VOD services? What are the components of a typical VOD system? Which feature film was generated first entirely on computers and in which year?
Q11. Answer any two of the following (about 150 words) 15X2=30a) What does the Solar system consist of ? discuss the motion of most of the bodies forming the solar system.
b) In which year and by which countries was International Space Station (IIS) launched?How many countries are participating in this program? What are the unique studies being made in the station which could not ve made so accurateky on the earth?
c) Discuss the elements of ‘frozen semen technology’. What are ‘embryo transfer’, ‘transgenic animals’, ‘DNA recombinant technique’?
Q12. Answer the following (about 20 words) 2X5=10a) What is ‘Symathetic Haptics’?
b) What are special feature of ‘Linux’?
c) What is an operating system? List the basic services provided by an operating
system.
d) What is an ‘Internet Worm’? Explain DDOS.
e) What do the following stand for :
i) POSIX ii) EPROM iii) MODEM iv) COBOL
Height (in cm) | Frequency |
144.5-149.5 | 3 |
149.5-154.5 | 5 |
154.5-159.5 | 24 |
159.5-164.5 | 54 |
164.5-169.5 | 60 |
169.5-174.5 | 27 |
174.5-179.5 | 4 |
179.5-184.5 | 3 |
Draw the two ogives (less than and greater than type cumulative frequency curves). Find the point of their intersection and comment on its significance. 8
Q14. a) The mean and variance of a set of 60 observations are 10 and 4
respectively while for a subset of 40 observations these measures are 11 and
2.25 respectively.
Find the mean and variance of the other subset. 8 Marks
b)The three outcomes of an experiment;w1, w2 and w3 are such that w1 is twice as likely to occur as w3. Find the probability of occurrence of each of the three outcomes. 8 Marks
Q15. a) What are the problems that a statistician encounters in the process of construction of index number? 2
b)Suppose that the regression line of two random variables y and x given by y=26.38-1.35x and that of x and y is given by x=16.38-0.45y. find the square of the coefficient of correlation between x and y. 2
c) If the correlation coefficient between two random variables is zero, are the random variables independent? 2
d) In a certain factory, a unit of work is completed by A in 10 minutes, by B in 20 minutes. What is the average number of units of work completed per minute? 2